A word of prelude: This paper is designed for the average reader, not for seminarians. Atonement is an important subject—for everybody. There are some important controversies on that subject that everyone needs to hear. It affects our view of God, among other things.
So let’s
start with a definition: Atonement is defined by Unger’s Bible
Dictionary as “the covering over of sin, the reconciliation
between God and man, accomplished by the Lord Jesus Christ. It is that special
result of Christ’s sacrificial sufferings and death by virtue of which all who
exercise proper penitence and faith receive forgiveness of their sins.”
Nothing
could be more important, right? Now, I’m not here to challenge the
definition—the problem is in the details. First, a word of background
assumption: If there are two different theories on the same subject, I believe
the correct one would more likely be the one that was believed by the earliest
church fathers (we’re talking about the disciples of the apostles, and the next
generation to, say, 250 AD—all before the church got corrupted by marriage to
the State). That is based on two things: (1) Their literature is breathtaking
in its knowledge of the context of Scripture; and they developed an ability to
effectively prove doctrinal theories with Scripture; and (2) If they had
doctrinal questions, there was a disciple of Paul or Peter nearby (or only a
generation or two removed) who could talk on the subject ad infinitum.
Well, there
are indeed two different theories on Atonement. The theory put forth by the
earliest church fathers (called the “Classic” theory) was good enough that it
endured from the church’s apostolic beginning for 1000 more years. But it was
cast aside by the “Satisfaction” theory of Anselm, a Roman Catholic church
philosopher and Archbishop of Canterbury around 1080. His theory was accepted
by Catholics, and later, believe it or not, by the Reformers (Luther, Calvin).
Thus, most “mainline” denominations believe this way as well. I have a proof of
that statement; a quote from usually reliable Wikipedia: "Calvinists
advocate the satisfaction theory of the atonement, which developed in the
writings of Anselm of Canterbury and Thomas Aquinas. In brief, the Calvinistic
refinement of this theory, states that the atonement of Christ pays the penalty
incurred by the sins of men—that is, Christ receives the wrath of God for sins
and thereby cancels the judgment they had incurred. The satisfaction view
of the atonement is a theory in Christian theology about the meaning and effect
of the death of Jesus Christ and has been traditionally taught in Western
Christianity, specifically in the Roman Catholic, Lutheran, and Reformed
circles." A secondary proof is from the Baptist Confession of Faith:
"The Lord Jesus, by His perfect obedience and sacrifice of Himself, which
He through the eternal Spirit once offered up to God, has fully satisfied the
justice of God."
In my
discussion of these two theories, I will start with the
"Satisfaction" theory, the "latecomer" put forward by
Anselm.
Let’s take a
closer look at Anselm’s “Satisfaction” theory. Firstly, what about his
insistence that sin is, quoting Anselm, “a debt to divine justice that must be
paid;” and what is wrong with his theory that says that “no sin can be forgiven
without satisfaction”? He also said that a sin against a sovereign—such as what
God is—is "too great to be forgiven, because it insults His majesty."
So, says the theory, God could not forgive our sins without a punishment. But
where is there room in this theory for God's forgiveness? And about the
related idea that "No sin can be forgiven without satisfaction"--Is
this idea Scriptural? Or, just maybe it is based on Medieval chivalry.
Why do I suggest that? Consider this: perhaps Anselm was influenced
more by the thought of his culture--when overlords were absolute rulers of
their fiefs, and as sovereign they had to have fear and unquestioned obedience
to run their land effectively. This theory might perceive that God is a God of
justice, not mercy, since He could not simply forgive. So we're
questioning whether this idea is based on Scripture.
The theory
further says that God loved us enough to allow His Son to suffer and die on the
Cross. That's fine, but it further states that Christ's suffering paid
God His demanded ransom price for our sin—this act “appeased” His
desperate need for justice. So it says that Jesus endured God’s wrath and
paid for our sin. Thus, Jesus took our place—then when He suffered
enough, He had paid our ransom to the Father, so we are now potentially
acceptable by God, whose justice has been satisfied, since God's wrath as
payment for our sin was poured out upon His Son instead of us.
Now, for
comparison: Here is the “classic” theory put forth by the earliest church
fathers (from 50 AD to 250 they developed this; and, as I say, their view held
sway until Anselm in 1080). This theory states that our sin put us in rebellion
to God and put us under the legal control of Satan. Satan (not God the
Father) demanded a ransom, a price for our lives, as he had a right to do,
because our sin placed us under bondage to him. Jesus’ suffering and death on
the Cross was to pay Satan—not God. Jesus gave Satan His life for our
lives. So the “substitutionary” aspect of Jesus’ incarnation still
remains, but different, as you can see.
Now I
realize that this presentation is over-simplified—but as I said, this is
written for everybody, and it has the main germ of the theories. It’s an easy
base by which we can now discuss the issues. So here are my main problems with
Anselm's theory:
1. Because
God is a divine sovereign, does that automatically mean He cannot
simply forgive our sins? Did He send His Son to the cross based on an
insatiable quest for justice, yet no mercy? Did He really “demand” payment for
our sin, either from us or from His Son? Did He have to pour out
wrath because of our sin? This is what Anselm was saying. For one possible
response, let’s look at Matthew 18:21-27:
Then
Peter came to Him and said, “Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me,
and I forgive him? Up to seven times?” 22 Jesus said to him, “I do not say to
you, up to seven times, but up to seventy times seven. 23 Therefore the kingdom
of heaven is like a certain king who wanted to settle accounts with his
servants. 24 And when he had begun to settle accounts, one was brought to him
who owed him ten thousand talents. 25 But as he was not able to pay, his master
commanded that he be sold, with his wife and children and all that he had, and
that payment be made. 26 The servant therefore fell down before him, saying,
‘Master, have patience with me, and I will pay you all.’ 27 Then the master of
that servant was moved with compassion, released him, and forgave him the debt.
Jesus (God)
cherished the art of forgiveness. Consider also James 2:13: Mercy
triumphs over judgment.
These verses
clearly show that God, despite being a divine sovereign, whatever that may mean
to Anselm, wants to forgive and have mercy on us. If we do our part.
Consider
this too, though: The Matthew parable above says He requires us to forgive each
other. Matthew 6:12, part of the Lord’s prayer also says:
And
forgive us our debts, As we forgive our debtors
So, we ask
Anselm, would God assert justice without mercy, and then turn around and tell
us that we need to be forgiving, without worrying about justice? Is God a “do
as I say, not as I do” person? I think not. By reading the
"Satisfaction" theory so followed today, you get the idea that God
was inflexible, and wanted all justice and no mercy; that He wanted to pour
wrath on His Son, that all this suffering by Jesus was His Father’s quest for
blood appeasement. Now, I don’t want to take away from how we should have a
righteous fear of God; He is not a “grandpa that overlooks my faults.” But I
have a serious problem with the rigidity of God as One who lacked the grace of
mercy, and must be wrathful. To Jesus or us. Scriptures above say
otherwise (read also the prodigal son, Luke 15).
2. The
second problem I have is the issue of “who was Jesus paying” with His suffering
and death—was He paying His Father, suggested by Anselm, or was He paying
Satan, suggested by the church fathers’ classic theory? First of all, Jesus was
willing to be the “ransom." As Matthew 20:28 and Mark 10:45 say:
...just
as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life
a ransom for many
And as
repeated in I Timothy 2:6:
who
gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time
So, given
that Jesus was indeed ransomed, here’s my question: To whom is a ransom
supposed to be paid? Well, how much sense is it that a ransom be paid to the
father of the one being held for ransom? Does that idea pass the smell test?
You don’t need to watch many criminal shows on TV to see how senseless that
sounds. Yet that’s what Anselm is suggesting. The classic theory, on the other
hand, holds that we are held as ransom by Satan—and any payment would be made
to Satan. That makes more sense right away, since ransoms are paid to the
bad guy who is holding the person you want released. Satan had a
bondage claim on us because of our sin. He was the bad guy to whom ransom had
to be paid.
The question
you might have now is: What right did Satan have for holding Jesus instead of
us, the sinners? Well, here’s where the substitutionary aspect comes in.
The problem was us. We, starting with Adam, have all sinned and have therefore
put ourselves under Satan’s control. If you don’t believe that, then you don’t
know how much God hates sin. Jesus has said we all have a master; it is either
God or Satan. Look at Matthew 6:24.
“No
one can serve two masters; for either he will hate the one and love the other,
or else he will be loyal to the one and despise the other. You cannot serve God
and mammon.
Note: “mammon” means driven by worldly gain—that’s how most unsaved people
serve Satan, whether they know it or not.
We all sin,
which is a rebellion against God, and we become rebels, and start our accountable
lives under Satan’s mastery. He is our “father” if we’re unsaved. Further proof
of that is how Jesus called those who don’t love Him children of the devil.
Look at John 8:42-44a:
Jesus
said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love Me, for I proceeded
forth and came from God; nor have I come of Myself, but He sent Me. .. 44 You
are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you want to do. He
was a murderer from the beginning…
This is
echoed in I John 3:10: In this the children of God and the children
of the devil are manifest: Whoever does not practice righteousness is not of
God, nor is he who does not love his brother.
But God,
thank Him, still loved us sinners, and wanted to free us from Satan’s control.
Satan demanded ransom to release us. God’s Son was willing to pay that ransom,
to be our substitute, placing Himself (temporarily, as it turned out) under
Satan’s control in exchange for us. Satan, not having perfect knowledge, was
willing to accept this as ransom payment. His thinking was, by tormenting and
killing Jesus, he would kill his biggest enemy and forever have control over
us. But he didn’t bank on the resurrection. Thank God for that! Since the
ransom was paid by Jesus at His death, our sins which held us to Satan were
paid for--to Satan, and we were set free.
We, of
course, are not free if we refuse to acknowledge these facts and are not
willing to be under our Savior's claim on our life as Lord.
Scripture is
also clear on who is satisfied by the ransom of Jesus. Is it God or Satan? As
Galatians 1:3-4 says, Jesus delivers (redeems) us—not from His Father (as
Anselm claims), but from this “present evil age”—that means Jesus bought us
from Satan’s realm:
Grace
to you and peace from God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ, 4 who gave
Himself for our sins, that He might deliver us from this present evil age
Finally,
Acts 20:28 says: Therefore take heed to yourselves and to all the
flock…to shepherd the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.
Now think
with me: Did Jesus purchase the church from the payee--His Father! so Anselm
would say? Well, does that mean God had ownership of the church, so He had
Jesus suffer so He could “sell” it to His Son who purchased it from Him? Huh?
That makes no sense. No, the church was purchased for a ransom price from an
enemy holding it up for ransom—Satan. That’s what a ransom is all about.
3. My third
problem with Anselm is of an underlying, hidden fact of his theory. If we
accept Anselm’s view that Jesus paid our debt to God, then God has to stamp
"paid" on our debt, and legally cannot burden us with our debt again.
That means He cannot unsave us. As any good lawyer will tell you, reinstating a
debt is impossible once it has been paid. Once your debt is paid, you’re done.
No retraction possible. This leans, as you can probably guess, toward the “once
saved always saved,” or eternal security, view of salvation. (I have three blogs
disputing that view, elsewhere on this site. That view is attractive, but
Scripturally wrong.)
The classic
theory of atonement, written by early church fathers, follows their view against the theory of
eternal security; they held the opposite view. They’re saying, remember, that
God was not “paid” for our sins; Satan was. God simply forgave our sins when we
trust the work of Christ. Thus, God received no consideration (payment) for our
sins (except our humility and worship, which is what He really wants).
This opens the door for later possible retraction; God can unsave us if we
aren’t abiding in Christ or being unfruitful (John 15:1-6, and Galatians 5).
Lawyers will tell you that when no consideration is paid for a debt, retraction
of a "debt-forgiveness" move is possible. Scripturally, this is also
clearly taught in “the rest of the story” of the servant of Matthew 18 above.
We left off with the Master forgiving his debt, verse 27. Let’s bring up
Matthew 18:28-34:
“But
that servant went out and found one of his fellow servants who owed him a
hundred denarii; and he laid hands on him and took him by the throat, saying,
‘Pay me what you owe!’ 29 So his fellow servant fell down at his feet and
begged him, saying, ‘Have patience with me, and I will pay you all.’ 30 And he
would not, but went and threw him into prison till he should pay the debt. 31
So when his fellow servants saw what had been done, they were very grieved, and
came and told their master all that had been done. 32 Then his master, after he
had called him, said to him, ‘You wicked servant! I forgave you all that debt
because you begged me. 33 Should you not also have had compassion on your
fellow servant, just as I had pity on you?’ 34 And his master was angry, and
delivered him to the torturers until he should pay all that was due to him.”
Remember the
verse from the Lord’s Prayer again:
And
forgive us our debts, As we forgive our debtors
After we’re
forgiven of our sins, and become initially saved, if we later fall back into
“the ways of the world,” such as greed and unforgiveness as exampled here, we
could lose our salvation (the debt is reimposed and you could be
“delivered to the torturers” if you cannot pay). These verses clearly teach how
we can lose salvation. (I’ve covered losing salvation in other blogs too).
I trust you
agree that the Scriptural evidence backs the early church fathers. They have a
better view of God from Scripture: God is forgiving, but if we deny Him in word
or behavior, and express no repentance, he will deny us. He did not heap wrath
upon His Son, nor was He anxious for blood appeasement. Let us all know Him and
love Him.
Acknowledgement
to Dave Bercot’s CD, “Atonement #1.”